• ignirtoq@fedia.io
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    14 days ago

    France, for instance, has a national policy against the recognition of domestic minority languages like Basque, Breton and Corsican.

    Trying to give France the benefit of the doubt, but this just sounds like oppression. Is there a good reason France doesn’t recognize minority languages in its territory?

    • jenesaisquoi@feddit.org
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      13 days ago

      The official reason is that they want to unite the country in one language, such that people are together, not divided.

      The actual reason is “lmao get rekt learn french u peasant” but in French.

    • reminder5444@lemmings.world
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      13 days ago

      Their reason is “national unity”. Also it’s the same good old story of the countryside vs city divide. Peasantry tends to be poorer, less educated, and thus speak more dialects. Also they can be more conservative but also more rebellious. French is the language of the revolution, so in their mind it’s a fight against obscurantism.

      It’s of course bullshit and independantism wont go anywhere. Both extremes are doing very good in britany.

      Also Briton is actually a living language, almost more dynamic than Irish

    • kunaltyagi@programming.dev
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      13 days ago

      What about countries where no language has a majority only a plurality? Does the French govt just assume those countries don’t speak any language?